UPSC Essentials : Daily subject-wise quiz | Polity and Governance MCQs on Governor of State, Section 479 and more (Week 86)Sign In to read

UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress. Come back tomorrow to solve the Science and Technology MCQs. Don’t miss checking the answers and explanations.

With reference to the parliamentary sessions, consider the following statements:

1. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this provision from the Government of India Act of 1935.

2. During the session, the listed business for the day cannot be suspended.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Winter Session of Parliament began but faced early disruptions, leading to the adjournment of both Houses for the day.

— The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions.

— This provision is a colonial legacy. The framers of the Constitution borrowed it from the Government of India Act of 1935. It allowed the British Governor General to call a session of the central legislature at his discretion, requiring that the gap between two sessions should not be more than 12 months. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Under Rule 267, the listed business for the day can be suspended to debate an urgent matter with the Chair’s approval. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Which of the following statements about the Governor of an Indian State is not correct?

(a) The qualifications and conditions of the office are mentioned in the constitution.

(b) The Governor must be a citizen of India and should have completed the age of 35 years.

(d) The Constitution lays down provisions for the manner in which the Governor and the state must engage.

Explanation

— The Article 153 of the Constitution says “There shall be a Governor for each State.” A few years after the commencement of the Constitution, an amendment in 1956 laid down that “nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States”.

— Article 155 says that the “Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal”. Under Article 156, “the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President”, but his normal term of office will be five years. If the President withdraws her pleasure before the completion of five years, the Governor has to step down.

— Since the President acts on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the Union Council of Ministers, in effect, the Governor is appointed and removed by the central government. There is no impeachment process for removing the Governor.

— Article 157 lays down the qualifications of the Governor, The Governor must be a citizen of India and should have completed the age of 35 years.

— Article 158 lays down the conditions of his office, The Governor should not be a member of Parliament or a state legislature, and must not hold any other office of profit.

— The Governor enjoys certain powers under the Constitution — such as giving or withholding assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature; determining the time needed for a party to prove its majority in the state Assembly; or, in cases such as a hung verdict in an election, which party must be called first to prove its majority — which make his position very significant.

— The Constitution lays down no provisions for the manner in which the Governor and the state must engage publicly when there is a difference of opinion and there is no provision for impeaching the Governor.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

A bench led by former CJI DY Chandrachud ordered the Centre to frame “mandatory accessibility standards”. It is associated with:

(a) Women

(b) Persons with Disabilities (PwD)

(d) Election Commission of India

Explanation

— A bench of the Supreme Court last week ordered the Union government to frame mandatory rules for ensuring the accessibility of public places and services to persons with disabilities.

— The apex court held that the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act and the rules notified under it were not being treated as mandatory. Thus, the judgment reaffirmed accessibility as a fundamental right.

— As a signatory to the United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD), India is obligated to promote accessibility as an essential right.

— According to Article 9, “to enable persons with disabilities to live independently and participate fully in all aspects of life, States Parties shall take appropriate measures to ensure to persons with disabilities access, on an equal basis with others, to the physical environment, to transportation, to information and communications… and to other facilities and services open or provided to the public, both in urban and in rural areas”.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following pairs with reference to the State and their respective Legislative Assembly seats:

1. Maharashtra – 288

2. Jharkhand – 90

3. Assam – 110

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), consider the following statements:

1. It lays down the “Maximum period for which [an] undertrial prisoner can be detained”.

2. Section 479 would apply “retrospectively” to cases registered against first-time offenders even before the BNSS took effect on July 1, 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Union Home Minister Amit Shah said that undertrials who have spent more than a third of the maximum prescribed sentence for the crime they are accused of committing should be released before Constitution Day (November 26).

— Section 479 of the BNSS lays down the “Maximum period for which [an] undertrial prisoner can be detained”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It states that a prisoner who is not accused of offences punishable with death or life imprisonment shall be released on bail if she has “undergone detention for a period extending up to one-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence under that law”.

— This same standard was provided under the previously applicable Section 436A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC).

— Section 479 would apply “retrospectively” to cases that were registered against first-time offenders even before the BNSS came into effect on July 1, 2024. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 86)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 85)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 85)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 85)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 85)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 85)

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