UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress. Come back tomorrow to solve the History, Culture, and Social Issues MCQs. Don’t miss checking the answers and explanations.

With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. It provides the power to make laws on marriage, divorce and social customs.

2. It allows the Autonomous District and Regional Councils (ADCs and ARCs) to regulate money lending and trading.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— This Sixth Schedule contains provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

— Inclusion under this Schedule would allow a State or U.T. to create Autonomous District and Regional Councils (ADCs and ARCs) — elected bodies with the power to administrate tribal areas.

— The schedule includes the power to make laws on subjects such as forest management, agriculture, administration of villages and towns, inheritance, marriage, divorce and social customs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Schedule also gives ARCs and ADCs the power to collect land revenue, impose taxes, regulate money lending and trading, collect royalties from licences or leases for the extraction of minerals in their areas, and establish public facilities such as schools, markets, and roads. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The ADCs and ARCs may also form village councils or tribunals to resolve conflicts between Scheduled Tribes members, as well as select personnel to oversee the implementation of the laws they pass. In circumstances where the offences are punishable by death or more than five years in jail, the Governor of the state may grant the ADCs and ARCs the authority to trial them under the country’s criminal and civil laws.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG), consider the following statements:

1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General shall be eligible for further service under the Government of India or the Government of any State after leaving office.

2. He/she shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

3. The salary and other conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor-General are specified in the Second Schedule.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— There shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-General of India who shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Every person appointed to be the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall, before he enters upon his office, make and subscribe before the President, or some person appointed in that behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.

— The salary and other conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor-General shall be such as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until they are so determined, shall be as specified in the Second Schedule. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The Comptroller and Auditor-General shall be not eligible for further service under the Government of India or the Government of any State after leaving office. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Comptroller and Auditor-General’s administrative expenditures, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to or in respect of personnel serving in that office, shall be charged to India’s Consolidated Fund.

— The President will present the Comptroller and Auditor General of India’s reports on the Union’s accounts to each House of Parliament.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

Consider the following statements:

1. A person shall not be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

2. A person accused of any offence can be compelled to be a witness against himself.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Article 20 of the Constitution of India provides protection with respect to conviction for offences.

— No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the Act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.

— No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Source: Constitution of India)

Which of the following parts of the Constitution of India deals with the compositions, roles and responsibilities of the urban local bodies?

(a) Part VIII

(b) Part IX

(c) Part XI

(d) Part IX-A

Explanation

— Urban local bodies (ULBs), i.e. Municipal Corporations, Municipalities, or Nagar Panchayats are the fundamental unit of urban governance in our cities. They are the first point of contact for citizens and are responsible for providing essential services such as waste management, sanitation, and urban planning.

— The first municipal body was established in Madras in 1687, followed by Bombay and Calcutta.

— In 1882, Lord Ripon (commonly referred to as the founder of local self-government in India) proposed the resolution for local self-government, establishing the groundwork for a democratically elected municipal administration to run cities.

— With the passage of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1992 (which went into effect in June 1993), ULBs obtained constitutional status as the third tier of government, alongside the central and state governments.

— Part IX-A of the Indian constitution specifies the compositions, functions, and responsibilities of these ULBs, as well as their authority to handle a wide range of services, including urban planning and land use, public health, and waste management. The 12th Schedule of the constitution provides 18 functions delegated to these ULBs.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Inter-State Council, consider the following statements:

1. It is a Statutory Body.

2. It inquires into and advises on disputes between states.

3. The Union Home Minister is the chairman of the Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Inter-State Council is a mechanism that was constituted “to support Centre-State and Inter-State coordination and cooperation in India”. The Council is basically meant to serve as a forum for discussions among various governments.

— The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution, which states that the President may constitute such a body if a need is felt for it. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— In 1988, the Sarkaria Commission suggested the Council should exist as a permanent body, and in 1990 it came into existence through a Presidential Order.

— The Council’s major functions are to investigate and advise on disputes between states, to investigate and discuss matters in which two or more states or the Union have a shared interest, and to make recommendations for greater policy and action coordination. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Prime Minister is the chairman of the Council, whose members include the Chief Ministers of all states and UTs with legislative assemblies, and Administrators of other UTs. Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Centre’s Council of Ministers, nominated by the Prime Minister, are also its members. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 79)

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 79)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment, Geography, Science and Technology (Week 79)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 79)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 79)

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