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UPSC Essentials : Daily subject-wise quiz | Polity and Governance MCQs on Joint sitting of Parliament, Section 6A and more (Week 82)Sign In to read

UPSC Essentials : Daily subject-wise quiz | Polity and Governance MCQs on Joint sitting of Parliament, Section 6A and more (Week 82)Sign In to read

UPSC Essentials : Daily subject-wise quiz | Polity and Governance MCQs on Joint sitting of Parliament, Section 6A and more (Week 82)Sign In to read

UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress. Come back tomorrow to solve the History, Culture, and Social Issues MCQs. Don’t miss checking the answers and explanations.

With reference to the joint sitting of Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. Article 107 provides for the procedure for the summoning of a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.

2. A joint sitting is called to resolve deadlocks arising from differences between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha on a bill.

3. The President of India can preside over a joint sitting of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2, and 3

(d) 1 only

Explanation

— Article 108 outlines the procedure for convening a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to discuss and resolve legislative issues. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— A joint sitting is convened when there is a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha over a bill, allowing both Houses to discuss the matter collectively. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The President of India does not preside over a joint sitting; instead, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer during a joint sitting. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: Constitution of India)

With reference to the Assam Accord and Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, consider the following statements:

1. Section 6A provides special provisions for the citizenship of illegal migrants in Assam who entered before 1985.

2. The Assam Accord was signed in 1985 to address the concerns of indigenous Assamese people regarding illegal migration.

3. The implementation of Section 6A has faced no legal challenges in the Indian courts.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, enacted in 1986, specifically provides for the citizenship of individuals who migrated to Assam before January 1, 1966. It was designed to address the unique context of Assam’s demographic changes and to provide protections for certain migrants while acknowledging the concerns of local communities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Assam Accord was signed on August 15, 1985, between the Government of India and the leaders of the Assam Movement. It aimed to resolve issues arising from the influx of illegal migrants from Bangladesh and to protect the rights and identity of the indigenous Assamese population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Section 6A has faced various legal challenges regarding its implementation. Issues such as the criteria for determining citizenship and the rights of migrants have been contested in courts, reflecting ongoing debates about citizenship, migration, and human rights in India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

What is one of the primary advantages of implementing simultaneous elections in India?

(a) Increased frequency of elections

(b) Reduction in election-related costs

(c) Greater autonomy for regional parties

(d) Enhanced voter awareness campaigns

Explanation

— The Union Cabinet set the ball rolling on holding simultaneous elections to Lok Sabha, state Assemblies, and local government bodies, clearing the proposal of the High Level Committee on One Nation, One Election headed by former President Ram Nath Kovind.

— The move to simultaneous elections would be effected in two phases — in the first phase, Lok Sabha and Assembly elections will be aligned; the second phase, which will be held within 100 days of the first, will cover local body elections.

Benefits of one nation one election

— It is expected that simultaneous elections would significantly reduce the logistical burden on authorities.

— Simultaneous elections would help reduce policy paralysis caused by frequent impositions of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC).

— The holding of simultaneous elections to Lok Sabha and state assemblies would reduce the massive expenditure that is currently incurred for the conduct of separate elections.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the recent Supreme Court ruling on the appointment of High Court judges, consider the following statements:

1. The ruling emphasizes the need for effective consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court.

2. The appointment process can be influenced by political affiliations of the candidates.

3. The ruling seeks to ensure greater transparency and accountability in judicial appointments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation

— The Supreme Court has underscored the importance of consulting the Chief Justice of the High Court during the appointment process, which aligns with the principle of judicial independence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The ruling explicitly aims to limit political influence in judicial appointments, reinforcing the idea that candidates should be selected based on merit and qualifications rather than political connections. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The Supreme Court’s decision promotes transparency and accountability in the selection process, addressing concerns over arbitrary or opaque appointments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Committee on Public Undertakings, consider the following statements:

1. It consists of 22 members elected by the Lok Sabha only.

2. A Minister is not eligible to become a Member of the Committee.

3. The leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha is the chairman of the committee.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The Committee on Public Undertakings has 22 members, 15 of whom are elected annually by the Lok Sabha via proportional representation by a single vote. The Rajya Sabha nominates seven members who have a transferable vote and are linked with the Committee. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The Speaker selects the Chairman from among the Committee’s members. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— Ministers are not eligible to serve on the Committee. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— If a Member is appointed as a Minister after being elected to the Committee, he no longer serves on the Committee as of the date of such appointment.

— The Committee’s term does not exceed one year.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: sansad.in)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 81)

Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 81)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment, Geography, Science and Technology (Week 81)

Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 81)

Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 81)

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