UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | November 03 to November 09, 2024Subscriber Only

UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find answers to the MCQs with explanations.

With reference to the PM-Vidyalaxmi scheme, consider the following statements:

1. The scheme makes students who get admission in Quality Higher Education Institutions (QHEIs) eligible for a collateral-free and guarantor-free education loan.

2. Students would be provided a 25% credit guarantee by the central government for loans up to Rs 7.5 lakh.

3. The interest subvention support will be given to 1 lakh students every year.

4. The scheme will be applicable only to the government institutions.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Explanation

— The Union Cabinet approved the PM-Vidyalaxmi scheme that makes students who get admission in Quality Higher Education Institutions (QHEIs) eligible for a collateral-free and guarantor-free education loan. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— An outlay of Rs 3,600 crore has been made for the scheme for 2024-25 to 2030-31 period and around 7 lakh fresh students are expected to benefit from the interest subvention offered under the scheme.

— Students will be provided a 75% credit guarantee by the central government for loans up to Rs 7.5 lakh. Students, with an annual family income of up to Rs 8 lakh, who are ineligible for benefits under any other government scholarship or interest subvention schemes, will be provided 3% interest subvention for loan up to Rs 10 lakh during the moratorium period. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— “Each year, 1 lakh students will receive interest subvention support. Students from government institutions who choose technical and professional courses will be given preference, according to a government statement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— This is in addition to an existing plan, the Central Sector Interest Subsidy (CSIS), which offers complete interest subsidy on loans up to Rs 10 lakh to students with an annual family income of up to Rs 4.5 lakh who are pursuing technical or professional courses.

— The NIRF rankings will determine quality higher education institutions (QHEIs). The program will be available to all institutions, both public and private. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the comparison between airships and aircraft, consider the following statements:

1. Aircrafts are lighter than airships.

2. Aircrafts are faster than airships in terms of speed.

3. Airships use more fuel to move the same mass of material as compared to aircrafts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— Airships were the first aircraft capable of controlled powered flight and were thought to be the future of travel for some years in the early 20th century. However, fundamental technological shortcomings and the rapid development of aeroplanes killed the idea of airship transport.

— Airships are lighter-than-air aircraft that are lifted by gas with a density lower than atmospheric gases. This principle also operates in helium balloons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Early airships employed hydrogen as a lifting gas since it was inexpensive, easy to create, and the lightest gas available. But hydrogen was also quite combustible. Several high-profile catastrophes, including the tragic Hindenburg disaster in 1937, damaged public trust in airships.

— The majority of modern airships use helium, which is non-combustible. However, helium is uncommon on Earth and consequently extremely expensive – 1 cubic metre, the amount of gas required to raise one kilogramme of weight, costs approximately $35.

— While aeroplanes significantly outperform airships in terms of speed, airships may theoretically be perfect goods vehicles because of their exceptional “lift-to-drag ratio” – which means they need far less fuel to convey the same mass of material. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: India’s current climate policies are projected to reduce carbon dioxide emissions by around four billion tonnes between 2020 and 2030.

Statement 2: Policies promoting renewable energy are expected to drive a 24-per cent decline in coal-based electricity generation by 2030.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

— According to a new analysis, India’s current climate policies are expected to reduce carbon dioxide emissions by around four billion tonnes between 2020 and 2030, as well as generate a 24 percent drop in coal-based power generation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— This is significant given that the rapidly rising South Asian country, now the world’s fifth-largest economy, pledged to lower emissions by one billion tonnes by 2030 at COP26 in Glasgow.

— According to a study conducted by the Delhi-based independent think tank Council on Energy, Environment, and Water (CEEW), measures in India’s electricity, residential, and transport sectors saved 440 million tonnes of carbon dioxide (MtCO2) between 2015 and 2020.

— According to the paper, in the power sector alone, policies favouring renewable energy are predicted to generate a 24% decrease in coal-based electricity output by 2030, compared to a no-policy scenario. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— According to CEEW, this equates to avoiding the construction of 80 GW of coal-fired power plants that would otherwise have been built to meet India’s growing electricity demand. India currently generates approximately 71% of its electricity from coal.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

The Chabahar Port was recently in the news. It is nearest to:

(a) Port of Salalah

(b) Gwadar Port

(d) Shuwaikh Port

Explanation

— An Indian delegation headed by a senior Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) official met Afghanistan’s interim Defence Minister Mullah Mohammad Yaqoob , offering the use of Chabahar Port in Iran to business groups in Afghanistan, while also holding discussions on extending more humanitarian assistance to Kabul.

— Chabahar is of strategic importance to both Iran and India. It can potentially help Tehran ward off the effect of Western sanctions, and offers New Delhi an alternative route that bypasses Pakistan, which does not allow India land access for trade with Afghanistan and Central Asia.

— Chabahar, which sits at the mouth of the Gulf of Oman, is Iran’s first deepwater port that puts the country on the global oceanic trade route map.

— The distance of Chabahar Port to various other ports:

(i) Port of Salalah: 719 nautical miles.

(ii) Gwadar Port: 76 nautical miles

(iii) Kandla Port: 550 nautical miles

(iv) Shuwaikh Port: 537 nautical miles

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

The first Integrated Check Post (ICP) was inaugurated at Darranga in Assam along:

(a) India-Bangladesh border

(b) India-Nepal border

(d) India-Bhutan border

Explanation

— The first Integrated Check Post (ICP) along the India-Bhutan border was launched in Darranga, Assam, according to officials.

— Assam Governor Lakshman Prasad Acharya inaugurated the ICP in the presence of Bhutanese Prime Minister Dasho Tshering Tobgay.

— ICP Darranga, which covers 14.5 acres and is roughly 700 metres from the India-Bhutan border, has cutting-edge facilities such as an office building, parking grounds, loading and unloading zones, a weighbridge, a warehouse, and residential quarters for personnel.

— Darranga’s advantageous location is further enhanced by its connection.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Recently, ten elephants died at Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve after consuming kodo millet plants due to the presence of:

(a) Oxalic acid

(b) Poison hemlock

(d) Glycoalkaloids

Explanation

— According to the toxicological study for the ten elephants who died at Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve, they ate a “large quantity” of kodo millet plants infected with a fungus.

— The lab tested samples from the elephants’ liver, kidney, spleen, heart, lungs, stomach, and intestinal contents.

— “Presence cyclopiazonic acid was detected in all pooled samples. Approximate concentration of cyclopiazonic acid detected in the sample was above 100 ppb. Further screening of all the samples is being made to estimate the exact concentration… The results indicate that the elephants might have consumed large quantities of kodo plant/grains,” the report read.

— The paper recommends the “survey and destruction of the fungal infected kodo crop residue as well as avoiding the entry of domestic and wild animals into such fields”

— According to a 2023 study named ‘Potential Risk of Cyclopiazonic Acid Toxicity in Kodua Poisoning’ published in the Journal of Scientific and Technical Research, kodo millet is primarily grown in dry and semi-arid environments. However, occasionally “environmental conditions like spring and summer strike as being suitable for a certain kind of poisoning, which leads to greater economic crop loss”.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Consider the following cases:

1. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India

2. Shafin Jahan v Union of India

3. Government of NCT of Delhi v Union of India

4. Property Owners Association and ors v State of Maharashtra and Ors

In how many of the above cases did the Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud gave landmark judgements?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Explanation

— As this week marks Justice D. Y. Chandrachud’s final days as the 50th Chief Justice of India. The most significant decisions and developments in the Supreme Court during his tenure, in which he has played a crucial role since his elevation to the Supreme Court in May 2016 are:

— Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India (Right to Privacy Case): In this verdict, Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, along with all the other members of the Bench, explicitly overruled the Emergency-era judgment in the case of ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (April 28, 1976). It is notable that Justice Chandrachud’s father, Y.V. Chandrachud, was part of the majority on the Bench that had previously ruled that the fundamental right to life was a gift of the Constitution and could be suspended during an Emergency.

— Shafin Jahan v Union of India (Hadiya case): In the famous Hadiya case, the Supreme Court said that “The right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution”, and set aside a 2017 order of the Kerala High Court which annulled the marriage of Kerala Muslim convert girl Hadiya and Shefin Jahan.

— Government of NCT of Delhi v Union of India: In this case, the question of the regulation of services was a major part of the overall dispute between the elected government in Delhi and the Lieutenant Governor (LG) nominated by the Centre. In its verdict, the 5-judge constitution bench, headed by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud, held that the legislature has control over bureaucrats in administration of services, except in areas outside the legislative powers of the National Capital Territory (NCT). There are three areas outside the control of Delhi government: public order, police and land.

— Property Owners Association and ors v State of Maharashtra and Ors: In verdict, Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud wrote for the majority ruling for himself, and Justices Hrishikesh Roy, J.B. Pardiwala, Manoj Misra, Rajesh Bindal, Satish Chandra Sharma and Augustine George Masih; Justice BV Nagarathna penned a concurring opinion while Justice Sudhanshu Dhulia dissented.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements about minority educational institution (MEI):

1. Under Article 30(1), all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

2. Under Article 15(5), MEIs are exempt from providing reservations for SCs and STs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— A seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court laid down in a 4-3 majority verdict a “holistic and realistic” test to determine the “minority character” of an educational institution, but left the factual determination on AMU to a smaller Bench.

— In 1967, the Supreme Court in S. Azeez Basha v Union of India held that AMU was neither established nor administered by the Muslim minority — it came into existence through an Act of the central legislature — and did not, therefore, qualify as a minority institution under Article 30 of the Constitution.

— In 1981, the government amended the AMU Act, 1920, to say that the institution was established by the Muslim community to promote the cultural and educational advancement of Muslims in India.

— In 2005, AMU provided 50% reservation for Muslims in postgraduate medical programs. In 2006, the Allahabad HC struck down both the university order and the 1981 amendment on the grounds that AMU was not a minority institution as per Azeez Basha.

— This judgement was challenged at the SC, and in 2019 the matter was referred to a seven-judge Bench.

— Under Article 30(1), all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Under Article 15(5), MEIs are exempt from providing reservations for SCs and STs. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

— Minority status also allows educational institutions to exercise greater control over their day-to-day administration — from student admissions (they can reserve up to 50% seats for minority students) to the hiring of teaching and non-teaching staff.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Which among the following personalities has discovered X-radiation (x-rays)?

(a) Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen

(b) Joseph John Thomson

(d) James Chadwick

Explanation

— On the evening of November 8, 1895, Wilhem Conrad Röntgen was working in his laboratory at the University of Würzburg in Germany when he discovered an unusual discovery.

— While researching how cathode ray tubes create light, Röntgen became distracted by a brilliant fluorescent screen, which he assumed was too far away from the tube to be impacted by cathode rays. He spent the next six weeks in his lab, trying to figure out what was making the screen light.

— Röntgen discovered that the interaction of cathode rays on the glass vacuum tube created a “new kind of invisible ray” with incredible penetrative force, which could be captured on photographic plates. He placed several materials between the cathode ray tube and the screen, ranging from paper and cardboard to wood, copper, and aluminium, and discovered that these invisible rays continued to reach the screen behind, albeit to varying degrees.

— On December 28, he published a ten-page study titled “On a New Kind of Rays” in the Proceedings of the Würzburg Physical-Medical Society. In it, he dubbed his discovery “X-radiation” (x-ray for short), after the mathematical term ‘X’, which represents anything unknown.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:

1. Mon, Noklak, Shamator, and Tuensang are the districts of this state.

2. This state is home to members of — Konyak, Khiamniungan, Chang, Sangtam, Tikhir, Phom, and Yimkhiung tribes.

3. This state has only 60 seats in its Legislative Assembly.

The above mentioned statements refer to which state?

(a) Tripura

(b) Meghalaya

(d) Nagaland

Explanation

— The Nagaland government stated that it was ready to forward its comments on the Centre’s draft Memorandum of Settlement on an arrangement for greater autonomy for the state’s six eastern districts.

— Eastern Nagaland refers to the six eastern districts of the state: Kiphire, Longleng, Mon, Noklak, Shamator, and Tuensang. These districts are home to members of seven tribes — Konyak, Khiamniungan, Chang, Sangtam, Tikhir, Phom, and Yimkhiung — and account for more than 30% of the state’s population. They also account for 20 of the 60 seats in the Assembly.

— The demand for an independent state of Nagaland’s eastern districts has long persisted. It began more than a decade ago, when the influential Eastern Nagaland People’s Organisation (ENPO) sent a memorandum to the Prime Minister’s Office in November 2010. Due to a “development deficit” in the region, the group requested a separate state with special status and provisions. The lack of development in the region has continued to fuel the demand for a separate state.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

The Bibek Debroy Committee was associated with:

(a) Tax structure

(b) Capital Goods

(d) Indian Private Sector Banks

Explanation

— Bibek Debroy, who died late last week, had a strong interest in railways.

— The landmark report of the 2015 expert committee on Railway Reforms, led by the late economist Bibek Debroy, cleared the way for a complete overhaul of the national transporter to achieve operational viability and regain competitiveness in the transport market.

— Some of the recommendations have been implemented, such as the elimination of the separate Rail Budget, the redesignation of the Chairman of the Railway Board as Chief Executive Officer (CEO), and a plan to give General Managers (GMs) and Divisional General Managers (DRMs) more authority to make “independent” decisions; however, the overarching recommendation on “liberalisation” of Indian Railways has yet to be implemented.

— The Debroy committee made a major recommendation: empower field officers. General Managers (GMs), Divisional Railway Managers (DRMs), and Branch executives have been granted authority. Along with this, the committee advised that technology be integrated and synergised in railways. This is being executed using the Vande Bharat Trains and KAVACH systems.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

He led the expedition to peacefully integrate Tawang into India. He was also instrumental in establishing essential military and security frameworks, such as the Sashastra Seema Bal and the Naga Regiment. By the time of the Tawang expedition, he had already made a name for himself in the Second World War.

Identify the personality in the above given lines.

(a) U Tirot Sing

(b) Gopinath Bordoloi

(d) Bob Khathing

Explanation

— Defence Minister Rajnath Singh last week inaugurated the Major Ralengnao ‘Bob’ Khathing Museum of Valour at Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh. The virtual event was held on October 31, the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, observed as National Unity Day, where Singh also inaugurated a statue of Patel.

— The legendary Bob Khathing led the expedition to peacefully integrate Tawang into India. He was also instrumental in establishing essential military and security frameworks, such as the Sashastra Seema Bal, Nagaland Armed Police, and the Naga Regiment.

— By the time of the Tawang expedition, Bob Khathing had already made a name for himself in the Second World War through his soldierly exploits. We take a look at the eventful career of the soldier and civil servant.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to US Congress, consider the following statements:

1.The House of Representatives has the exclusive power to initiate revenue Bills, impeach federal officials, and elect the president in case of an Electoral tie while the Senate, on the other hand, has the sole power to approve or reject treaties, and confirm or deny the President’s appointments — such as that of Supreme Court justices — that require consent.

2.The House is headed by the Speaker of the House who is elected by representatives whereas the Vice President serves as President of the Senate and may cast the decisive vote in the event of a tie in the Senate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Suhas Subramanyam made history as the first Indian-American to be elected to the House of Representatives from Virginia, and the East Coast. As House Rep, he will represent Virginia’s 10th congressional district.

— The House of Representatives has the exclusive power to initiate revenue Bills, impeach federal officials, and elect the president in case of an Electoral tie while the Senate, on the other hand, has the sole power to approve or reject treaties, and confirm or deny the President’s appointments — such as that of Supreme Court justices — that require consent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The House is headed by the Speaker of the House who is elected by representatives whereas the Vice President serves as President of the Senate and may cast the decisive vote in the event of a tie in the Senate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

What is Laika?

(a) the first living creature to orbit the earth

(b) the first test tube child to be born in the world

(d) None of the above

Explanation

— On November 3, 1957, the Soviet Union launched ‘Sputnik 2’ and made history by sending the first-ever living creature to orbit Earth, a dog named Laika. The flight, which was meant to test the safety of space travel for humans, ended up being a one-way trip for Laika.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer

With reference to the ‘Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response’ initiative consider the following statements:

1. The project was approved by the Pandemic Fund, created by G20 countries under Indian presidency in 2023.

2. The project will work with the help of three implementing agencies—Asian Development Bank (ADB), the World Bank, and the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The central government recently launched a project to better monitor animal health for prevention of future pandemics.

— The ‘Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response’ initiative was launched by the Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Rajiv Ranjan Singh alias Lalan Singh, in New Delhi on October 25.

What is the project?

— The project aims to enhance the country’s capacity to “prevent, detect, and respond to animal health threats.”

— The project was approved by the Pandemic Fund, created by G20 countries under Indonesian presidency in 2022. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The basic purpose of the fund is to assist low-and middle-income countries in strengthening their capacities to identify, report and contain future pandemics.

— In its first investment round, the fund mobilised $2 billion. Proposals from various countries were invited for funding, and 350 expressions of interest (EoI) and 180 full proposals were received in the first call. Of these, the governing board of the Fund approved 19 grants in 37 countries. From India, the proposal by the Union animal husbandry department made it to the final list to receive a funding of $25 million.

What is the timeline for the project?

— The project will work with the help of three implementing agencies—Asian Development Bank (ADB), the World Bank, and the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). It is expected to be completed by August 2026. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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