UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | November 10 to November 16, 2024Subscriber Only

UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find answers to the MCQs with explanations.

With reference to the Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme (MATES), recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. India has come up with a new scheme that allows talented young people from low-income countries and lower-middle-income countries to work in India for some time.

2. MATES has been established under the Migration and Mobility Partnership Arrangement (MMPA) that supports and promotes migration and mobility between the two countries, while addressing issues pertaining to illegal and irregular migration.

Which of the above given statements are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Australia has come up with a new scheme that allows talented young people from India to work in the country for some time. Here are the details about the Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme (MATES). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— According to the Department of Home Affairs of Australia, MATES gives Indian university graduates and early career professionals a chance to work in Australia for two years.

— On May 23, 2023, Australia and India entered into a Migration and Mobility Partnership Arrangement (MMPA). The MMPA is a bilateral framework that supports and promotes two-way migration and mobility between the two countries, while addressing issues pertaining to illegal and irregular migration. MATES has been established under the MMPA. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Smog, consider the following statements:

1. It is a type of air pollution that creates a hazy or foggy atmosphere.

2. It forms when pollutants react chemically in the presence of sunlight.

3. Volatile organic compounds are not a part of the smog.

4. Stubble burning is cited as a major contributor to smog in northern India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

— Smog is a type of air pollution that creates a hazy or foggy atmosphere, reducing visibility and affecting air quality. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The term “smog” was first used in the early 1900s to describe a mixture of smoke and fog, but it later came to refer to pollution caused by coal-burning, which was especially frequent in industrial areas.

— Smog occurs when pollutants including nitrogen oxides, volatile organic compounds (VOCs), and other hazardous particles are emitted into the atmosphere by factories, cars, and power plants. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— When these contaminants are exposed to sunlight, they react chemically, resulting in a hazardous combination. When paired with fog or high humidity, this reaction creates a dense haze that reduces visibility and poses a risk to public health. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Stubble burning is commonly regarded as a significant contributor to smog in northern India, notably in Punjab and Haryana. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

— Beyond stubble burning, year-round sources such as automobile emissions, industrial smoke, and construction dust deteriorate over the winter due to confined air conditions. Vehicle exhaust, in particular, emits nitrogen dioxide and fine particulate matter (PM2.5), which contribute significantly to smog. Thermal power plants and factories provide a continual stream of pollutants, exacerbating the problem.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

With refernce to Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD), consider the following statements:

1. As a signatory to the United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD), India is obligated to promote accessibility as an essential right.

2. In its current form, the RPwD rules do not provide for “non-negotiable” compulsory standards but only persuasive guidelines.

Which of the above given statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— A bench of the Supreme Court last week ordered the Union government to frame mandatory rules for ensuring the accessibility of public places and services to persons with disabilities. Outgoing Chief Justice of India Justice DY Chandrachud headed the bench. The apex court held that the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act and the rules notified under it were not being treated as mandatory. Thus, the judgment reaffirmed accessibility as a fundamental right.

— As a signatory to the United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD), India is obligated to promote accessibility as an essential right. According to Article 9, “to enable persons with disabilities to live independently and participate fully in all aspects of life, States Parties shall take appropriate measures to ensure to persons with disabilities access, on an equal basis with others, to the physical environment, to transportation, to information and communications… and to other facilities and services open or provided to the public, both in urban and in rural areas”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Enacted in 2016, the RPwD Act draws on the CRPD and aims “to ensure that all persons with disabilities can lead their lives with dignity, without discrimination and with equal opportunities.” The RPwD Rules of 2017, framed under the Act, were to lay down specific accessibility standards.

What did the Supreme Court rule?

— The judgement was passed over a writ petition filed in 2005 by Rajive Raturi, a visually challenged person, who sought directions on ensuring safety and accessibility in public spaces.

— The SC held that in its current form, the RPwD rules do not provide for “non-negotiable” compulsory standards but only persuasive guidelines. It said that Rule 15 (1) contravened the provisions and legislative intent of the RPwD Act and is thus ultra vires (beyond the powers of) the Act. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.

The da Vinci Surgical System is:

(a) performed when there is a major complication after cardiac surgery.

(b) AI guidelines for surgery.

(d) robotic system that allows surgeons to perform minimally invasive surgeries.

Explanation

— Researchers at Johns Hopkins University (JHU) have trained a robot to execute sophisticated medical procedures, marking a significant milestone in surgical robotics.

— JHU researchers refer to this as ‘the successful use of imitation learning’. This, they claim, eliminates the need to train robots for each unique manoeuvre necessary during medical procedures. This moves robotic surgery closer to total autonomy, allowing robots to do complex surgeries without human interference.

— The da Vinci Surgical device is a robotic device that allows surgeons to perform minimally invasive surgeries, which involve making minor or no incisions at all.

— The da Vinci robot imitates the hand movements of a surgeon in real time. The multiple arms of the robot are controlled by a surgeon using a hand-operated console. It comes with a robotic arm that manages the camera, lighting and a vision cart that supports a 3D high-definition vision system.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to the climate-related agreements/protocols, consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Explanation

— As the COP29 conference opens on November 11 in Baku, Azerbaijan, terminology like the New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG), the Paris Agreement, the Kyoto Protocol, loss and damage, and Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) are in the news.

— The United Nations (UN) hosts an annual international climate meeting known as COP. COP stands for Conference of the Parties. ‘Parties’ refers to the (now) 198 countries that have signed the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

It was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, in 1997, and came into effect in 2005. The treaty formally expired in 2020 and was replaced by the Paris Agreement as the main international treaty for coordinating global action against climate change.

They have also pledged to pursue efforts to limit the rise to 1.5 degree Celsius — an important threshold, crossing which would unleash far more severe climate change impacts, including more frequent and severe droughts, heatwaves and rainfall.

This was the first time that a UN climate agreement explicitly mentioned coal. The pact also marked the resolution of the deadlock over carbon markets.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to the LignoSat, consider the following statements:

1. It is the world’s first wood-panelled satellite developed by NASA.

2. The satellite will test the durability of wood in the extreme environment of space.

3. The satellite has been made using a traditional Japanese crafts technique without screws or glue to hold it together.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation

— On November 5, the world’s first wood-panelled satellite was launched into orbit to assess the viability of hardwood as a renewable building material for future space travel.

— The tiny Japanese spacecraft LignoSat, created by Kyoto University and homebuilder Sumitomo Forestry, arrived at the International Space Station (ISS) on November 5 on a SpaceX Dragon cargo spaceship. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— LignoSat measures just 4 inches (10 centimetres) on each side, and weighs 900 grams. The satellite is named after the Latin word for wood, with panels built from a type of magnolia tree, using a traditional Japanese crafts technique without screws or glue to hold it together. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The satellite will put wood to the test in orbit, where temperatures fluctuate every 45 minutes between -100 and 100 degrees Celsius, even as things move through sunlight and darkness.

— According to Deutsche Welle, the satellite will also assess timber’s potential to mitigate the effects of space radiation on semiconductors.

— However, LignoSat does not consist entirely of wood. The satellite is built with standard aluminium framework and electronic components housed in a wood panel shell. Its sensors will monitor how the wood reacts to the severe space environment throughout its six-month orbit around the Earth. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

The “DIGIT platform” was recently in the news. It is associated with:

(a) Medical facilities for Rural areas

(b) 24*7 water supply

(d) Urban governance

Explanation

— The Government of India identified urban sustainability as a key area for the development and integration of AI-based systems, announcing the formation of three AI centres in agriculture, health, and urban sustainability with an overall budget of Rs 990 crore in its Budget Announcement of 2023-24, with the mandate to ‘Make AI in India and Make AI work for India’.

— DIGIT is an open-source platform with basic features and applications that allow governments to provide services to their citizens, coordinate across departments, and engage with market and civil society players to innovate and solve new and emerging requirements.

— The e-Governance Foundation has co-developed a plan for the creation of the next generation of its renowned DIGIT platform for urban governance.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to the International Chess Federation (FIDE), consider the following statements:

1. Players get official ratings by participating in any of the chess tournaments around the world.

2. Anish Sarkar has become the world’s youngest chess player to be ranked by the International Chess Federation.

3. To get a Standard rating, you will need to play at least 5 games against players who are already rated, and score at least ½ point (a draw) in those games.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Young chess players have made the headlines in recent years, with the likes of Indian grandmasters Gukesh and Praggnanandhaa R becoming major players in their teens. Now, an Indian prodigy, Anish Sarkar, has become the world’s youngest chess player to be ranked by the International Chess Federation — all at the age of three. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— According to the FIDE Qualification Commission, players earn official ratings by competing in FIDE-rated tournaments. It states that FIDE organises very few tournaments, mostly global events such as the World Championship, its qualifiers, and other World Championships. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— To become a FIDE-recognised tournament, specific restrictions regarding game time limits, a minimum player rating, and other criteria must be met.

— In addition, to be included in the rating list, a player must be registered with a FIDE-member national chess federation, unless allowed otherwise by the FIDE Council.

— The commission’s website adds, “There are three possible types of rating you might achieve: Standard, Rapid and Blitz, which reflect different game lengths. In order to get a Standard rating, you will need to play at least 5 games against players who are already rated, and score at least ½ point (a draw) in those games.” Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Which of the following paramilitary forces has got approval for the first-ever all-woman battalion recently?

(a) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)

(b) Border Security Force (BSF)

(d) Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)

Explanation

— The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has approved the establishment of a first-ever all-woman CISF battalion comprising more than 1,000 personnel.

— “The unit will be raised from within the sanctioned manpower of the force of about two lakh personnel. The MHA issued a sanction order on Monday approving an exclusive women unit called reserve battalion in the force with a total strength of 1,025 personnel led by a senior commandant-rank officer,” the official said.

— The CISF now has 12 reserve battalions, which include both men and women. Women personnel account for more than 7% of the CISF.

— CISF has long been a popular alternative for women seeking to serve their country in the Central Armed Police Force. The formation of a Mahila battalion would encourage more ambitious young women across the country to join the CISF. It will provide women with a new identity within the CISF.

— The CISF, established in 1969, offers counter-terrorist security support to a variety of nuclear and aerospace facilities, as well as those in the private sector, such as Infosys offices in Bengaluru and Pune and the Reliance refinery in Jamnagar (Gujarat), among others.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to the new rules for imposing penalties for violations of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, consider the following statements:

1. The adjudication officer has the power to issue notice to persons against whom complaints have been filed.

2. An adjudication officer has to be a person not below the rank of a joint secretary or secretary to the state government.

3. The whole process of imposing penalties for violations has to be completed within three months from the issuance of notice to the opposite party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

— The Union Environment Ministry has issued new regulations for conducting investigations and applying fines for violations of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.

— The new Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) (Manner of Holding Inquiry and Imposition of Penalty) Rules, 2024, will take effect immediately, according to the government’s notification.

— The reforms also empowered the Centre to select officers to adjudicate offences, violations, and impose penalties.

“The Central Pollution Control Board, State Pollution Control Boards, Pollution Control Committees and Integrated Regional Offices of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, in their respective jurisdictions, through their authorised Officers, or any other persons, may file a complaint …to the adjudicating officer regarding any contravention committed under sections 41, 41A, 42, 43, 44, 45A and 48 of the Act,” the new Rules state.

— According to the Rules, the adjudication officer has the authority to send notices to individuals against whose complaints have been made, outlining the nature of the suspected or committed violation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— According to the amended Act, an adjudication officer must hold at least the level of joint secretary or secretary to the state government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The alleged violation may defend themselves or through legal counsel. According to the Rules, the entire process must be completed within six months of the issuance of notice to the opposite party. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:

1. Lead contamination in turmeric is likely due to adulteration practices that involve adding non-edible substances to enhance colour.

2. India’s Food Safety and Standards Authority (FSSAI) limit for lead in turmeric powder is set at just 10 μg/g.

3. As per the World Health Organization (WHO), 127 μg/g lead is safe for human consumption.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation

— A recent study published in Science of The Total Environment raised an urgent concern about dangerously high levels of lead pollution in turmeric from India, Pakistan, Nepal, and Sri Lanka.

— The findings show that turmeric, a staple spice in South Asian cuisine and widely used in traditional medicine, contains lead levels that are much beyond legal limits, suggesting substantial health risks, particularly to youngsters.

— India’s Food Safety and Standards Authority (FSSAI) limits lead in turmeric powder to 10 μg/g. The study found that in cities like Patna and Guwahati, lead levels reached 2,274 μg/g and 127 μg/g, respectively. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The World Health Organisation (WHO) has indicated that no amount of lead is acceptable for human ingestion. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— According to experts, lead contamination is most likely caused by adulteration procedures that entail the addition of non-edible chemicals, such as lead chromate, to improve the colour and vibrancy of turmeric. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The short-term effects of lead exposure include gastrointestinal issues, cognitive impairment, fatigue and headaches.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the CAG reports for urban local bodies, consider the following statements:

1. Less than half of the revenue of the urban bodies was their own, with the rest coming from the Union and state governments.

2. More than three-fourths of the current expenditure of the urban local bodies was directed towards programmatic and development work.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Flagging concerns on the health of urban local bodies, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) has found that city self-governments in 18 states that cater to 241 million residents are facing a 42 per cent gap between their resources and expenditure and that only 29 per cent of their expenditure goes towards programmatic and development work.

— The CAG determined that 31 years after the 74th Constitutional Amendment, which empowered urban local governments, went into force in 1993, these 18 states have yet to completely execute the provision in spirit.

— The CAG produced a compilation of audit reports on the 74th Amendment’s implementation in 18 states. It included 393 urban local self-governments (ULSGs) from Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manipur, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Tripura, and Uttarakhand.

— The CAG discovered that on average, urban bodies generated 32% of their own money, with the remainder coming from the Union and state governments. The urban municipalities were able to collect 56% of their property tax demand. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Only 29% of the present expenditure of urban local authorities was allocated to thematic and development efforts. There was an average vacancy of 37% against the sanctioned personnel strength. On the other hand, urban bodies in 16 states had little or no control over recruiting. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Recently seen in the news, the term ‘DOGE’ is related to:

(a) Astromony

(b) Artificial Intelligence

(d) None of the above

Explanation

— US President-elect Donald Trump has announced that X owner Elon Musk and Indian-origin entrepreneur Vivek Ramaswamy will head a new body called Department of Government Efficiency (DOGE).

— “I am pleased to announce that the Great Elon Musk, working in conjunction with American Patriot Vivek Ramaswamy, will lead the Department of Government Efficiency (“DOGE”),” Trump said in a statement.

— In effect, DOGE will be the USA’s version of ‘Minimum Government, Maximum Governance’. The Republican Party has for long advocated a leaner government, with fewer red tape regulations and fewer taxes.

Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.

Why are Turritopsis dohrnii and Mnemiopsis leidyi in news?

(a) When their adult forms are stressed, they reverted to an earlier stage in their life-cycle — rather than die.

(b) These extremely small new species dicovered recently are so inconspicuous that even the mature plants can be easily mistaken for seedlings.

(c) These are two new species of medicinal mushroom, endemic to South Africa, identified by a student using genetic sequencing.

(d) These are species which are the most common bacteria and fungi, respectively, on the International Space Station.

Explanation

— It’s not the first time that scientists have made a discovery about a slippery marine species by accident. You may have heard about the “immortal jellyfish,” which was discovered by chance in the 1980s by two young scientists, Christian Sommer and Giorgio Bavestrello .

— They found that when adult Turritopsis dohrnii jellyfish were stressed, they reverted to an earlier stage in their life-cycle — rather than die.

— The process is called reverse development. And it seems now that Turritopsis dohrnii is not ddr

— Two scientists in Norway have discovered that comb jellies from the species Mnemiopsis leidyi reverse from a mature “lobate”, or adult with lobes, to an early larval-state — also when stressed — just like the “immortal” Turritopsis dohrnii.

Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.

Who has won The Booker Prize 2024?

(a) Percival Everett

(b) Samantha Harvey

(d) Rachel Kushner

Explanation

— British writer Samantha Harvey is this year’s Booker Prize winner for her novel Orbital.

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.

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