UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 13 to October 19, 2024Subscriber Only

UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find answers to the MCQs with explanations.

With reference to the thermite as a weapon, consider the following statements:

1. It was used in both world wars.

2. Dragon drones release thermite which triggers a self-sustaining reaction that is quite difficult to extinguish.

3. The use of thermite in war is prohibited under international law.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation

— Dragon drones essentially release a substance called thermite — a mixture of aluminium and iron oxide — developed a century ago to weld railroad tracks.

— When ignited (usually with the help of an electrical fuse), thermite triggers a self-sustaining reaction that is quite difficult to extinguish. It can burn through almost anything, from clothes to trees to military-grade vehicles, and can even burn underwater. On humans, it causes severe, possibly fatal, burns and bone damage.

— Dragon drones are believed to have been first deployed in the Russia-Ukraine war around September. According to a report by The New York Times, Ukrainian forces used them to “ignite the vegetation that Russian troops use for cover and burn it out, exposing them and their equipment to direct attack.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Thermite was used in both world wars. During World War I, German zeppelins dropped thermite-laden bombs which were considered an innovation at the time. By World War II, thermite-laden high incendiary explosives became a part and parcel of both the Allies and Axis forces’ aerial bombing campaigns. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The use of thermite in war is not prohibited under international law. However, the use of such incendiary weapons against civilian targets is barred under the Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons — Cold War-era guidance issued under the auspices of the United Nations. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Explanation

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.nobelprize.org)

With reference to the La Nina, consider the following statements:

1. It is a warm phase of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation.

2. It involves changes in wind and ocean temperatures in the Pacific Ocean.

3. During La Nina, the trade winds intensify and cold water from the depths of the sea rises up, resulting in cooler than average ocean temperatures in the eastern Pacific.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration’s Climate Prediction Center says there is a 60% chance that a weak La Nina event will develop this autumn and could last until March.

— La Nina is part of a natural climate cycle that can cause extreme weather across the planet — and its effects vary from place to place.

— La Nina is the cool phase of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation, a naturally occurring global climate pattern that involves changes in wind and ocean temperatures in the Pacific and can cause extreme weather across the planet. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

— El Nino is the warm phase, which occurs when the trade winds that normally blow across the Pacific towards Asia diminish, allowing warm ocean waters to accumulate around the western coast of South America.

— During La Nina, trade winds accelerate and cold water from the bottom of the sea comes to the surface, resulting in cooler-than-average ocean temperatures in the Eastern Pacific. Hence, statement 3 is correct

— Cold ocean temperatures and atmospheric changes cause the jet stream, a narrow band of rapidly moving air that flows from west to east around the world, to shift northward. The jet stream sits over the ocean and can tap into its moisture, influencing storm paths and increasing precipitation.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:

1. The contribution of direct taxes to total tax revenue decreased to around 50 per cent in 2023-24 compared to the previous year.

2. The share of indirect taxes to total tax revenue in 2023-24 has increased compared to the previous year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The contribution of direct taxes to total tax revenue climbed to 56.72 per cent in 2023-24, the highest in 14 years. The surge was even more stark in the direct tax-to-GDP ratio — the share of direct taxes in the overall economic output in the country — which jumped to over a two-decade high of 6.64 per cent. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— With the direct tax portion of total tax revenue growing in FY24 from 54.63 percent the previous year, the indirect tax share has dropped to 43.28 percent. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Direct taxes are considered more progressive since they are related to income levels, as opposed to indirect taxes, which are applied uniformly and hence affect the poor more than the wealthy.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a:

(a) Constitutional body

(b) Judicial body

(d) Ombudsman body

Explanation

— The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) wrote to the chief secretaries of all states and union territories, urging that madrasa boards be “closed down,” state financing to madrasas and madrasa boards be discontinued, and children attending madrasas be enrolled in “formal schools.”

— The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established by the Government of India under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005, to exercise and carry out the powers and tasks delegated to it by the CPCR Act.

— A Statutory body is created by the act of the Parliament which is authorised to execute the legislation.

— The commission consists of the following members namely:-

— A chairperson who is eminent and has done great work to promote the well-being of children; and

— The Central Government appoints six members, at least two of whom are women, from the following fields: education, child health, care, welfare, or child development, juvenile justice or care of neglected or marginalised children or children with disabilities, elimination of child labour or children in distress, child psychology or sociology, and child-related laws.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.ncpcr.gov.in)

With reference to the Moonlight programme, consider the following statements:

1. The programme was launched by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) at the International Astronautical Congress.

2. It will have a constellation of about five lunar satellites that will allow accurate autonomous landings and high-speed communication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The European Space Agency (ESA) at the International Astronautical Congress, launched its Moonlight Lunar Communications and Navigation Services (LCNS) programme. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The ESA is claimed to be creating infrastructure to support future moon missions. With this, the ESA hopes to provide vital support for more than 400 moon missions planned by space agencies and commercial firms over the next 20 years.

— The effort will include a constellation of around five lunar satellites that will enable precise autonomous landings, high-speed communication, and surface mobility. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— These satellites are said to be capable of transferring data between the Earth and the Moon across a distance of 2,50,000 miles (4,000,000 km).

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Precision therapy, consider the following statements:

1. It involves identifying specific genetic mutations in tumours which allows to target treatments that may be more effective than standard therapies.

2. It serves as a key tool to identify patients requiring intensive treatments like surgery or chemoradiation.

3. It is not universally applicable to all cancers.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation

— Precision medicine, also called personalised medicine, traditionally used in advanced stages of cancer, now plays a key role even in early stages.

— Early-stage cancers often have a better prognosis when detected and treated promptly. Precision therapy involves identifying specific genetic mutations in tumours, allowing doctors to choose targeted treatments that may be more effective than standard therapies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— This approach can improve outcomes and reduce unnecessary side effects, said Dr Mukesh Patekar, unit head, medical oncology at Artemis Hospitals.

— The process begins with diagnostic tests, such as biopsies, where a tumour sample is analysed for genetic markers.

— The fundamental idea of precision medicine is to personalise treatment to the individual, ensuring that the appropriate patients receive the proper care. This helps to minimise overtreatment, which causes needless side effects, and undertreatment, which puts the patient at risk of cancer development.

— Precision therapy is an important tool for identifying patients who require extensive therapies such as surgery or chemoradiation vs those who can be treated with less invasive approaches such as radiation alone. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Although precision medicine is advancing rapidly, it is not universally applicable to all cancers or accessible to everyone. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Matsu Islands, located in the East China Sea, was recently in the news. The island is governed by:

(a) Russia

(b) Japan

(d) Taiwan

Explanation

— China launched military exercises with ships and aircraft near Taiwan, merely days after the latter observed its 113th National Day.

— During ‘Operation Joint Sword 24B’, China’s People’s Liberation Army (PLA) reportedly deployed the Liaoning aircraft carrier, cruisers, and bombers around Taiwan and its outlying islands early Monday morning, sealing off vital ports in the Taiwan Strait.

— According to the PLA, the drill tested “combat readiness patrols, blockade of key ports and areas, assault on maritime and ground targets, and seizure of comprehensive superiority”.

— Matsu Island is a small island in the East China Sea that is administered by Taiwan.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to rare diseases, consider the following statements:

1. Some rare diseases can be treated with a one-time curative procedure and some require long-term or lifelong treatment.

2. Therapies are available for around 50 per cent of rare diseases.

3. Gaucher’s disease is categorised as a rare disease.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation

— The Delhi High Court issued directions aimed at improving the availability of so-called “orphan drugs”, which are medications used to treat “rare diseases” — defined by the World Health Organization (WHO) as a debilitating, lifelong condition that affects 1 or fewer people in 1,000.

— Around 55 medical conditions — including Gaucher’s disease, Lysosomal Storage Disorders (LSDs), and certain forms of muscular dystrophy — are classified as rare diseases in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Therapies are available for less than 5% of rare diseases, resulting in less than one in every ten patients receiving disease-specific therapy. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— In India, uncommon diseases are divided into three categories based on the type and complexity of treatment choices.

— Group 1 comprises disorders that can be cured with a single curative treatment. Group 2 disorders necessitate long-term or lifelong treatment, which is relatively less expensive and has demonstrated verified advantages, but patients must have regular check-ups. Group 3 diseases have excellent therapies, but they are costly and may require lifetime care. There are difficulties in selecting the appropriate recipients for these treatments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Abetment in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, consider the following statements:

1. It is defined under Section 45 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS).

2. A person abets the doing of a thing if he engages with one or more others in a conspiracy for the doing of that thing.

3. The punishment for abetment of suicide can be up to 10 years imprisonment along with a fine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— The Supreme Court said that police and the courts should avoid “unnecessary prosecutions” in cases of abetment of suicide stemming from the workplace.

— ‘Abetment’ is defined under Section 107 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC), which is the same as Section 45 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— A person abets the doing of a thing, if he

(i) instigates any person to do that thing, or

(ii) engages with one or more others in a conspiracy for the doing of that thing, or Hence, statement 2 is correct.

(iii) intentionally aids, by any act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing.

— The punishment for abetment of suicide provided under Section 306 IPC (Section 108 BNS) can be up to 10 years imprisonment along with a fine. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to Global Hunger Index 2024, consider the following statements:

1. India falls into the “alarming” category as compared to its South Asian neighbours like Bangladesh, Nepal, and Sri Lanka, which fall into the “serious” category.

2. The top three countries worst affected by global hunger crises are located in Africa.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Based on indicators like undernourishment, child stunting, child wasting, and child mortality across 127 countries; here are the top 10 hungriest countries in the world in 2024.

(Source: Global Hunger Index 2024)

— In the Global Hunger Index (GHI) of 2024, India has been placed in the 105th position, categorising it as “serious” in terms of hunger analysis.

— The top three countries worst affected by global hunger crises are Somalia (Africa), Yemen (Asia) and Chad (Africa). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— India’s GHI score of 27.3 is a cause for concern, especially when compared to its South Asian neighbours like Bangladesh, Nepal, and Sri Lanka, which fall into the “moderate” category. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Comparing the GHI scores of India, the country which was previously categorised as “alarming” in 2000 with a score of 38.4, has shown gradual improvement. However, there is still a long way to go as the 2024 GHI report presents troubling statistics highlighting;

— 13.7 per cent of India’s population suffers from undernourishment,

— 35.5 per cent of children under the age of five are stunted.

— 18.7 per cent experience wasting, and

— 2.9 per cent of children do not reach their fifth birthday.

— These numbers indicate deep-seated issues concerning undernutrition, unhealthy living conditions, and inadequate access to essential nutrients.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to Citizenship in India, consider the following statements:

1. Article 11 of the Constitution gives Parliament the power to “to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship”.

2. Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 says that all persons of “Indian origin” who entered the state before January 1, 1966 and have been “ordinarily resident” in Assam ever since “shall be deemed to be citizens of India”.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Assam accord 1985 SC Verdict: In a landmark verdict, the Supreme Court on Thursday (October 17), upheld the constitutional validity of Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, which granted citizenship to immigrants who entered Assam before March 24, 1971.

What does Section 6A of the Citizenship Act provide?

— Assam has historically had a problem of illegal entry of people from East Pakistan/ Bangladesh across the porous border crisscrossed by many rivers and streams. A key element of the Assam Accord was determining who is a “foreigner” in the state.

— Clause 5 of the Assam Accord states that January 1, 1966 shall serve as the base cut-off date for the detection and deletion of “foreigners”, but it also contains provisions for the regularisation of those who arrived in the state after that date and upto March 24, 1971.

— Section 6A was inserted into the Citizenship Act to facilitate this. It says that all persons of “Indian origin” who entered the state before January 1, 1966 and have been “ordinarily resident” in Assam ever since “shall be deemed to be citizens of India”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Additionally, it provides that anyone who entered and resided in Assam after January 1, 1966 but before March 24, 1971 who has been “detected to be a foreigner” would have the opportunity to register themselves according to rules made by the Central government.

— Article 11 of the Constitution gives Parliament the power to “make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

It became China’s Special Administrative Region after four centuries of Portuguese colonial rule. Following attempts to control the strategically located peninsular region as a trading post in the 16th Century, Portugal secured a permanent lease from China in 1557. Today it is also known as the “Las Vegas of the East”.

Identify the region referred above:

(a) Hong Kong

(b) Macau

(d) Taiwan

Explanation

— Marking a break from tradition, Macao’s former top judge Sam Hou Fai was elected its next Chief Executive or top political leader. One of China’s Special Administrative Regions (SAR), Macao is a casino hub, known as the “Las Vegas of the East”.

— Macao became China’s SAR after four centuries of Portuguese colonial rule. Following attempts to control the strategically located peninsular region as a trading post in the 16th Century, Portugal secured a permanent lease from China in 1557.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to “Reconstruction of the population history of South Asia using ancient and modern genomics”, the project of Government of India, consider the following statements:

1. The study is being undertaken through the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), which functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture.

2. The project will study 300 ancient skeletal remains – largely cranial and other bone fragments, including tooth — collected from different archaeological sites in India and Pakistan.

3. The research aims to offer clear conclusions about the movement and interactions of ancient populations in India.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— In a first, the government has undertaken a comprehensive scientific study using ancient and modern genomics to “conclusively” find the population history of South Asia, amid conflicting theories about the origin of ancient Indian communities.

— The study is being undertaken through the Anthropological Survey of India (AnSI), which functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— Titled “Reconstruction of the Population History of South Asia using ancient and modern genomics”, the project will study 300 ancient skeletal remains – largely cranial and other bone fragments, including tooth — collected from different archaeological sites in India and Pakistan. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The study will be able to conclusively say if Aryan migration happened or not, officials said the research aims to offer clear conclusions about the movement and interactions of ancient populations in India. “This evidence will help understand the expansion of the ancient Indian population over time, leading to a deeper and more accurate narrative of India’s ancient history,” said an official. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

It refers to the growing tendency of companies or countries to make dubious or unverifiable claims about their activities, products or services being environment-friendly or climate-friendly.

Identify the term referred above:

(a) Greenshifting

(b) Bluewashing

(d) Greenwashing

Explanation

— Seeking to restrain companies from making false or misleading claims about the environment-friendly nature of their products or services, the Centre on Wednesday released new guidelines that make it mandatory for companies to substantiate their claims with scientific evidence.

— The Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Greenwashing or Misleading Environment Claims were issued by the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) which works under the Consumer Affairs Ministry. The move is part of the government’s crackdown on misleading advertisements. The new norms would complement the existing Guidelines for Prevention of Misleading Advertisements and Endorsement for Misleading Advertisements, framed in 2022, which deal with false or exaggerated claims in advertisements in general.

What is greenwashing?

— Although greenwashing as a term has been used in the limited context of advertising in these guidelines, it has a much broader scope. Greenwashing refers to the growing tendency of companies, organisations or even countries to make dubious or unverifiable claims about their activities, products or services being environment-friendly or climate-friendly.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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