UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | October 20 to October 26, 2024Sign In to read

UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find answers to the MCQs with explanations.

The recent collaboration between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and Department of Biotechnology (DBT) will focus on:

1. Impact of microgravity on edible algae

2. Bio therapeutics

3. Novel pharmaceuticals

4. Regenerative medicine

5. Growth of cyanobacteria with urea in space

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

— The potential studies that will result from the collaboration between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) range from determining whether supplements can prevent muscle loss in microgravity to the impact of microgravity on edible algae and the growth of cyanobacteria with urea in space.

— The collaboration will centre on microgravity research, space biomanufacturing, and bioastronautics. The collaboration could lead to the establishment of laboratories focused on various aspects of space biotechnology or the development of instruments suitable for use in space.

— This framework MoU between ISRO and DBT will lead to cooperation in the niche field of Space Biotechnology.

— It will benefit the national human space programme while also spurring innovations and developments in human health research, novel pharmaceuticals, biotherapeutics, regenerative medicine, and bio-based technologies for efficient waste management and recycling, all of which will lead to a wide range of societal benefits.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: isro.gov.in)

With reference to the Withdrawal of Life Support in Terminally Ill Patients, consider the following statements:

1. In 2011 Aruna Shanbaug v. Union of India, the Supreme Court(SC) recognised that life sustaining treatment could legally be withheld/withdrawn even from a person without decision-making capacity.

2. In 2018 Common Cause v. Union of India, the SC recognised the right to die with dignity as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, and legalised the use of advance medical directives or living wills.

3. In 2023 Common Cause v. Union of India, the SC simplified the process for making living wills and withholding/withdrawing life sustaining treatment by removing bureaucratic hurdles.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation

— The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare released draft Guidelines for the Withdrawal of Life Support in Terminally Ill Patients to operationalise the Supreme Court’s 2018 and 2023 orders on the right to die with dignity for all Indians.

— The guidelines provide a pathway for state governments and hospitals to put in place key mechanisms required by the Supreme Court’s order. These include:

(i) Setting up of Primary and Secondary Medical Boards at the level of the hospital, which will determine when further medical treatment may not be beneficial to a terminally ill patient;

(ii) Nomination of doctors by the district Chief Medical Officer or equivalent to hospital-level Secondary Medical Boards, which will confirm or reject the opinion of the Primary Medical Boards.

— There is no dedicated legislation in India on withholding/ withdrawing life-sustaining treatment. But the Supreme Court’s judgment, and now the draft guidelines published by the Ministry, make it clear that withholding/ withdrawing life-sustaining treatment is legal in India under a defined framework.

— Withholding or withdrawing life-sustaining treatment refers to discontinuing life-sustaining medical interventions such as ventilators and feeding tubes, etc., when these no longer help the condition of the patient or prolong their suffering.

— Life-sustaining treatments are medical treatments that artificially replace bodily functions essential to the life of the person. These interventions are withheld or withdrawn with the intention of providing comfort care, allowing the underlying illness to take its course, while providing symptomatic relief.

— The right to refuse medical treatment has always existed in common law, even if it results in death. Following the Supreme Court’s decision in Common Cause vs Union of India (2018), it is also recognised as a fundamental right under Article 21 (Right to life and personal liberty) of the Indian Constitution.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Biodiversity is declining more quickly inside key protected areas than outside them.

Statement 2: Most of the protected areas are not designed to safeguard the whole ecosystem but only certain species.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

— A new study found that biodiversity is losing faster inside crucial protected areas than outside of them. The findings, which raise concerns about current conservation approaches, suggest that simply designating more areas as protected “will not automatically result in better outcomes for biodiversity”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— According to the NHM website, the study’s researchers looked at the Biodiversity Intactness Index (BII), which measures how much natural biodiversity remains in a region on average.

— They found that the index has decreased by 1.88 percentage points globally between 2000 and 2020.

— The researchers also looked at key biodiversity areas (CBAs), which are ecosystems and wetlands that are important for biodiversity, with 22% of them protected. According to their findings, “within those critical areas that were not protected, biodiversity had declined by an average of 1.9 percentage points between 2000 and 2020, and within the areas that were protected it had declined by 2.1 percentage points,” according to The Guardian’s story.

— One of the key causes for the loss is that many protected areas are not intended to conserve the entire ecosystem, but rather certain species. This implies that perfect “biodiversity intactness” is not a priority, according to the study. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following places:

1. Daulat Beg Oldie

2. Demchok

3. Pangong Tso

4. Galwan valley

What is the correct sequence of these places from north to south?

(a) 2—1—3—4

(b) 1—4—3—2

(d) 2—4—3—1

Explanation

— Negotiators from India and China have reached an agreement on “patrolling arrangements” along the Line of Actual Control (LAC), resulting in disengagement and resolution of issues that arose in these regions in 2020.

— Following this statement, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Chinese President Xi Jinping held a bilateral meeting on the sidelines of the BRICS leaders’ summit in Kazan, Russia.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Polio, consider the following statements:

1. Vaccination against polio began in 1972, and expanded in 1985 as the country-wide Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP).

2. India reported its last polio case in 2015 in Mumbai.

3. October 31 is observed as World Polio Day.

4. There is no cure for polio, it can only be prevented through a vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation

— October 24 is observed as World Polio Day. The Day was established by Rotary International to commemorate the birth of Jonas Salk, who led the first team to develop the vaccine against the disease in the 1950s. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— India has managed to eradicate polio, a highly infectious viral disease that causes paralysis and even death, mainly affecting children. There is no cure for polio, it can only be prevented through a vaccine. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

— According to the Global Polio Eradication Initiative, India had the greatest number of polio cases in 2009, with 741 reported. In January 2011, India recorded its final polio case in Howrah, West Bengal. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Polio vaccinations began in 1972 and were expanded nationwide in 1985 as the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The fact that polio drops could be administered orally rather than as injections was advantageous, as local health personnel could do so without specialised training.

— Polio is commonly transmitted through an infected person’s faeces, which others can come into contact with through contaminated food and water, poor hygiene, and so on. Thus, coupled with immunisation, the significance of washing hands, boiling drinking water, and feeding exclusively breastmilk to newborns under six months of age, etc. was also communicated to people.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to the UN peacekeepers in Lebanon (UNIFIL), consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) was established by a resolution of the UN Security Council in 1978.

2. The UNIFIL was established to confirm the withdrawal of Israeli forces from southern Lebanon to restore peace and security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— On October 20, the UN force in Lebanon issued a statement saying the Israel Defense Forces (IDF) had used a bulldozer to “deliberately demolish an observation tower and perimeter fence of a UN position in Marwahin” (close to the border with Israel).

— The statement by the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) “reminded the IDF and all actors of their obligations to ensure the safety and security of UN personnel and property and to respect the inviolability of UN premises at all times”.

— The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) was established by a resolution of the UN Security Council in 1978, in response to Israel’s invasion of southern Lebanon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— According to UN Security Council resolutions 425 and 426, adopted in March 1978, the UNIFIL was established to confirm the withdrawal of Israeli forces from southern Lebanon, restore peace and security, and to help the Lebanese government in restoring its control and authority. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Southern Lebanon, which shares a border with Israel, has been the site of repeated conflicts between the IDF and Hezbollah.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

With reference to the spectrum for satellite communication (satcom), consider the following statements:

1. Satcom services use an array of satellites in orbit to provide connectivity on the ground.

2. It offers less coverage than ground-based communication.

3. The latency of satcom services cannot be higher than terrestrial broadband networks.

4. It allows communication networks to reach remote locations.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Explanation

— Union Communications Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia clarified that spectrum for satellite communication (satcom) would be allocated “administratively”, rather than through an auction of airwaves.

— Spectrum for satcom is part of the first schedule of The Telecommunications Act, 2023 (“Assignment of spectrum through administrative process”). Under Section 4(4) of the Act, telecom spectrum shall be assigned through auction “except for entries listed in the First Schedule for which assignment shall be done by administrative process”.

— The Department of Telecommunication (DoT) had asked the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (Trai) to come up with a methodology to assign the spectrum.

Satcom & its benefits

— Satcom services use an array of satellites in orbit to provide connectivity on the ground. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— They do not require wires to transmit data, and are an alternative to ground-based communication, called terrestrial networks, such as cable, fibre, or digital subscriber line (DSL).

— Satellite-based communication and broadband services provide two significant benefits to end users such as homes and businesses: increased coverage and a more resilient network. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Even though satcom services can have higher latency than terrestrial broadband networks, they can reach large areas without requiring a lot of physical equipment. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The utilisation of satellites enables communication networks to reach remote regions that mobile phones cannot. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

— Satellite-based Internet is also thought to be more reliable than terrestrial-based services because it has fewer components on the ground. As a result, extreme weather occurrences are less likely to harm satellite communication infrastructure.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the E.coli, consider the following statements:

1. It is a bacterial infection.

2. It causes gastrointestinal symptoms.

3. It spreads through contaminated food and water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation

— One person has died and 10 have been hospitalised in the US due to an E.coli infection after eating McDonald’s burgers.

— E.coli is a bacterial infection for which antibiotics are prescribed. It causes gastrointestinal symptoms, is not uncommon in India. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

It spreads through contaminated food and water. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— According to the most recent report from the ICMR’s Antimicrobial Surveillance Network, the most prevalent bacteria recovered from patient samples is E.coli. The pathogen was detected in 23.19% of all patient samples from tertiary care facilities in India, where monitoring is being conducted.

— The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is establishing a network of 34 microbiological labs around the country to test food goods for 10 pathogens such as E.coli, salmonella, and Listeria.

— The most common signs of an E.coli infection include a temperature of more than 102 degrees Fahrenheit, persistent diarrhoea, bloody diarrhoea, and vomiting. However, the main problem is dehydration caused by the patient’s inability to retain water and fluids.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Which of the following is/are the required eligibility conditions for the appointment of the Chief Justice of India?

1. the person must have been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.

2. the person must have been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.

3. the person must be in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— President Droupadi Murmu appointed Justice Sanjiv Khanna as the 51st Chief Justice of India, who is likely to take oath on November 11, will succeed CJI D Y Chandrachud who is due to retire on November 10.

— “In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution of India, the President is pleased to appoint Shri Justice Sanjiv Khanna, Judge of the Supreme Court, to be the Chief Justice of India with effect from 11 November 2024,” the government notification said.

— Apart from being an Indian citizen, the person must (a) have been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession or (b) have been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or (c) be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.

— Article 217, which deals with the appointment of High Court judges, says the President should consult the CJI, Governor, and Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. Further, the tenure of a CJI is until they attain the age of 65 years, while High Court judges retire at 62 years.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:

1. India’s greenhouse gas emissions surged in 2023, contributing to 8 per cent of the global total.

2. India’s per capita emission remains higher than the global average of 6.6 tCO2e.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— India’s greenhouse gas emissions surged by 6.1 per cent in 2023, contributing to 8 per cent of the global total but the country’s historical contribution to global CO2 emissions stands at only 3 per cent, a new UN report has revealed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Emissions Gap Report 2024 – No more hot air … please! – by the UN Environment Programme, painted a stark picture of the climate crisis, calling for urgent global action to close the gap between climate pledges and actual results.

— India’s per capita emission remains low at 2.9 tons of CO2 equivalent (tCO2e), far below the global average of 6.6 tCO2e, its overall contribution reflects the growing energy demands of the world’s most populous country. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The report highlighted stark global inequalities, with G20 nations (excluding the African Union) collectively accounting for 77 per cent of global GHG emissions.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to “agricultural household,” consider the following statements:

1. It is one that has reported a total value of produce from farming exceeding Rs 6,500 (be it cultivation of field and horticulture crops, livestock and poultry rearing, or aquaculture, sericulture and apiculture).

2. More than half of rural households in the country — including households in semi-urban centres with a population of less than 50,000 — are “agricultural”.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey for 2021-22, released earlier this month, found that 57% of rural households in the country — including households in semi-urban centres with a population of less than 50,000 — were “agricultural”. This was significantly higher than the 48% reported in the previous survey of 2016-17. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The survey, commissioned by the National Bank for Agriculture & Rural Development (NABARD), defined an “agricultural household” as one that (i) reported a total value of produce from farming exceeding Rs 6,500 (be it cultivation of field and horticulture crops, livestock and poultry rearing, or aquaculture, sericulture and apiculture); and (ii) had at least one member who was self-employed in such activities during the reference year (July 2021 to June 2022). In the 2016-17 survey, the threshold cut-off value of produce was Rs 5,000. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer

With reference to National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED), consider the following statements:

1. It is registered under the Multi State Co-operative Societies Act.

2. It comes under the Ministry of Cooperation and the Minister of Cooperation answers NAFED-related queries in Parliament.

3. Agricultural farmers are the main members of Nafed, who have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of Nafed.

4. Nafed was setup with the objective to promote Cooperative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

— A week after Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan’s decision to assign additional charge of Managing Director, National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED), to an Agriculture Ministry official, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) entrusted charge of the post to an official of the Ministry of Cooperation.

— The ACC, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has Amit Shah, Union Minister of Home Affairs and Cooperation, as its only other ministerial member.

— It is responsible for appointing senior officials to key positions in the Central government, public sector undertakings and autonomous bodies.

— Agricultural farmers are the main members of Nafed, who have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of Nafed. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Nafed was setup with the objective to promote Cooperative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

— Established on October 2, 1958, the NAFED is registered under the Multi State Co-operative Societies Act. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It comes under the Ministry of Agriculture and the Agriculture Minister answers NAFED-related queries in Parliament.

— While the Board of NAFED is responsible for appointing its MD, it approves the official appointed by the government to the post. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements and answer the question below:

1. Planet X exists in the ‘habitable zone’ of the Sun with temperatures that allow for water to exist.

2. Nasa’s missions have earlier shown proof of ancient liquid water on planet X, gauged from the dry lake beds, and presence of water ice in unexplored areas.

3. Planet X lost its liquid water billions of years ago after its magnetic field collapsed exposing it to harsh ultraviolet radiation.

4. Planet X has the presence of 30 per cent more harmful ultraviolet rays, as it does not have a protective shield.

Identify planet ‘X’ based on the informations given above:

(a) Mercury

(b) Venus

(d) None of the above as information is insufficient.

Explanation

— The new Nasa research suggests that conditions for photosynthesis may exist below the dusty ice at Mars’ mid-latitudes regions. For the uninitiated, mid-latitudes of Mars are essentially areas between 30 degrees and 60 degrees latitude in both hemispheres. These regions are believed to contain a lot of water ice in the subsurface, preserved under lithic materials that can be thick by several metres.

— Earth and Mars exist in the ‘habitable zone’ of the Sun with temperatures that allow for water to exist. Earth has oceans covering over 70 per cent of its surface, however, Mars remains dry. Nasa’s Mars missions have earlier shown proof of ancient liquid water on the red planet. These were gauged from the dry lake beds, and presence of water ice in unexplored areas.

— According to scientists, Mars lost its liquid water billions of years ago after its magnetic field collapsed exposing it to harsh ultraviolet radiation. Mars has the presence of 30 per cent more harmful ultraviolet rays, as it does not have a protective shield like Earth’s ozone layer.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements given below:

1. Scattering material that can reflect solar radiation into Space and prevent it from reaching Earth, thereby cooling down the planet is called geoengineering.

2. In the Carbon Capture and Sequestration (CCS) method, carbon dioxide is sucked out through large “artificial trees” from ambient air and directed towards storage sites or utilisation.

3. Under Direct Air Capture (DAC) methods, carbon dioxide emitted, from industry or power plants, is “captured” at source and deposited deep below the Earth’s surface in suitable geological formations for long-term storage.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Explanation

— A new study has argued that spraying millions of tonnes of diamond dust in the Earth’s upper atmosphere every year could help cool down the Earth and combat global warming. It might appear to be a rather outlandish claim, but this is not the first time such a solution has been proposed.

— Several other compounds, such as sulphur, calcium, aluminium, and silicon, have been suggested previously for doing the same job. The central idea here is to scatter material that can reflect solar radiation into Space and prevent it from reaching Earth, thereby cooling down the planet. The installation of space-based mirrors has also been proposed.

— Such solutions, called geo-engineering (more specifically solar radiation management), have been under study for quite some time, though they have never been tried. The new study published in Geophysical Research Letters found that diamonds would be more effective in doing the job than any other material previously considered. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Solar Radiation Management (SRM), in which materials are proposed to be deployed in Space to reflect incoming solar rays and prevent them from reaching Earth, is one of the two broad geoengineering options being explored.

— Then there are Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) technologies, which include Carbon Capture and Sequestration (CCS). While they offer quick-fix solutions for reducing emissions or temperatures, they are not particularly viable.

— The only method being tried out in practice is CCS. Carbon dioxide emitted, from industry or power plants, is “captured” at source and deposited deep below the Earth’s surface in suitable geological formations for long-term storage. Since carbon dioxide is not released into the atmosphere, overall emissions are reduced. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Another option involves the captured carbon being used as an input for other industrial processes (known as Carbon Capture and Utilisation or CCU). In Carbon Capture, Utilisation and Storage (CCUS), some carbon dioxide is utilised and the rest is stored underground.

— Under Direct Air Capture (DAC) methods, carbon dioxide is sucked out through large “artificial trees” from ambient air and directed towards storage sites or utilisation. Since these methods can potentially eliminate carbon dioxide accumulated over the years, the benefits are larger compared to CCS. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to cyclones:

1. Extratropical cyclones have cold air at their core and derive energy from releasing potential energy when cold and warm air masses interact.

2. Warm fronts or cold fronts are associated with tropical cyclones.

Which of the above given statements are associated with tropical cyclones?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

What is a cyclone?

— A cyclone is a large-scale system of air that rotates around the centre of a low-pressure area. It is usually accompanied by violent storms and bad weather. A cyclone is characterised by inward spiralling winds that rotate anticlockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere, according to the NDMA.

What are extratropical cyclones?

— Also known as mid-latitude cyclones, extratropical cyclones occur outside of the tropics. They have “cold air at their core, and derive their energy from the release of potential energy when cold and warm air masses interact”, according to the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). It added that such cyclones always have one or more fronts — a weather system that is the boundary between two different types of air masses. One is represented by warm air and the other by cold air — connected to them, and can occur over land or ocean. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

What are tropical cyclones?

— Tropical cyclones are those which develop in the regions between the Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer. They are the most devastating storms on Earth. Such cyclones develop when “thunderstorm activity starts building close to the centre of circulation, and the strongest winds and rain are no longer in a band far from the centre,” NOAA noted. The core of the storm turns warm, and the cyclone gets most of its energy from the “latent heat” released when water vapour that has evaporated from warm ocean waters condenses into liquid water, the agency added. Moreover, warm fronts or cold fronts aren’t associated with tropical cyclones. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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